[Caml-list] Stupid question

[Brian Hurt <bhurt@spnz.org>]

I was poking around in the produced assembly code of some ocaml code of 
mine, and I noticed something.  The construct:
	if (x < m) <> (y < m) then
		...

when the compiler knows that x, y, and m are all ints, it calls an 
external C routine to compare the two booleans.  But the construct:

	if (x < m) != (y < m) then
		...

does not.  Now, this isn't a big deal- I just replaced <> with != and no 
problem.  But I was kind of interested in why the compiler didn't catch 
and optimize this.  Is there some sort of subtle semantic difference I'm 
too dense to see?

-- 
"Usenet is like a herd of performing elephants with diarrhea -- massive,
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                                - Gene Spafford 
Brian


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